Let \(X\) and \(Y\) be Banach spaces and let \(B(X,Y)\) denote the space of bounded linear operators. A closed subspace \(M \subset B(X,Y)\) is said to be reflexive if every \(T \in B(X,Y)\) such that \(T(x) \in Mx^-\) for every \(x\in X\) implies that \(T \in M\) (here \(Mx = \{S(x): S \in M\}\) and the closure is w.r.t. the strong operator topology). Such spaces are also called topologically reflexive spaces. \(M\) is said to be hyperreflexive if there exists a \(C>0\) such that for all \(T \in B(X,Y)\), \(\text{dist}(T,M) \leq C \sup\{\text{dist}(Tx,Mx): x \in X\), \(\| x\| = 1 \}\). Any hyperreflexive space is reflexive and when \(X,Y\) are finite-dimensional, any reflexive space is hyperreflexive. In general, these two concepts are not the same. In this very interesting paper, the authors show that any finite-dimensional reflexive subspace is hyperreflexive, answering a question of \textit{J. Kraus} and \textit{D. R. Larson} [Problem 3.9 in: Proc. Lond. Math. Soc., III. Ser. 53, 340--356 (1986; Zbl 0623.47046)].