I read a case report about Tuberculosis and fungal co-infection in a previously healthy patient published in Colomb Med (Cali) by Fontalvo et al., and I would like to address some related comments. Frequently clinicians report adult cases of patients with opportunistic infections as disseminated tuberculosis and/or fungal infections in patients consider as immunocompetent based mainly in the absence of human immunodeficiency virus infection (HIV negative). Immunocompetence is more complex than absence of HIV infection and involves a normal capacity to develop an immune response following the exposure to an antigen or broadly a normal immune response, but usually immunocompetent is define as the opposite of immunodeficiency. In the report authors said “Our aim is to report the case of an immunocompetent patient diagnosed with Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Candida albicans co-infections” but my deliberation is Do we make in the clinical practice all the efforts to consider a patient as immunocompetent? Mycobacterial, fungal and other opportunistic infections force the clinician to rule out a large list of conditions associated with secondary immunodeficiency as infectious agents (HIV, Herpesvirus, HTLV), drugs (steroids, immunosuppressants, biologics, chemotherapy) , metabolic diseases (diabetes, renal failure, cirrhosis), malignancies (leukemia, lymphomas and solid tumors) and environmental conditions (radiation, heavy metals) but even adult patients can have late onset primary genetic immunodeficiency